First, please excuse me if my question has already been answered. I took a look in several topics but I found nothing about my problem.
In fact, I would like to understand why it is necessary to use a set of 2n+1 Sigma points.
Indeed, for me, only 2n sigma points can be used, the central sigma point corresponding to the mean of the prior estimated state can be infered from the others because of the symmetrical distributions of the SP all around the mean.
Taking an exemple in 1D :
x is the state before propagation, and sigma² is its covariance. If we have only 2 SP corresponding to x1=x-sigma and x2=x+sigma, then the mean x can be found by (x1+x2)/2. There is no need to sample 3 SP as described in the SPKF algortihm. The covariance can also be found by [(x1-x)(x1-x)+(x2-x)(x2-x)]/2. We have already described mean and covariance with only 2 SP instead of 3.
Maybe using 2n+1 SP instead of only 2n is easier and faster, and that's why it has been implemented this way. Please could someone confirm what I am saying? (Or in the contrary explain me why I am wrong...)
Thanks
Edited by Tipou, 29 August 2011 - 12:13 AM.


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